For any non-empty set $S$ and predicate $p$ defined on $S^2$ prove or disprove $\forall x\in S\exists y\in S p(x,y)\to \exists y\in Sp(y,y)$
I'm trying to prove the above. First of all i need to know whether the statement is true or false.. Here how to change $p(x,y)$ to $p(y,y)$?? pretty confused..
Let $S:=\Bbb Z$ and for all $(x,y)\in S^2$ and let $p(x,y)$ mean $x>y$.