Working on basic first-order logic for uni, I have been given the answers to an assignment which I don't agree with.
Question: Which of these formulas is equivalent to ∀x∃y(Bx → Cy)?
a) ∃xBx → ∃yCy
b) ∀xBx → ∃yCy
I say a), the answer sheet says b).
My logic is:
∀x∃y(Bx → Cy) = ∀x∃y(¬Bx v Cy)
= ∀x(∃y¬Bx v ∃yCy)
= ∀x(¬Bx v ∃yCy)
= ∀x(¬Bx) v ∃yCy
= ¬∃xBx v ∃yCy
= ∃xBx → ∃yCy
Could someone please confirm if I'm right or where my reasoning fails?
You are right.
See Prenex normal form.
We have that $\exists x(\phi(x) \rightarrow \psi )$ is equivalent to $(\forall x\phi(x))\rightarrow \psi$, where $x$ does not appear free in $\psi$.
But we have that $\exists x(\phi \rightarrow \psi )$ is equivalent to: $\phi \rightarrow (\exists x\psi )$, when $x$ does not appear free in $\phi$.
And we have that $\forall x(\phi \rightarrow \psi )$, is equivalent to: $(\exists x\phi )\rightarrow \psi$, with $x$ not free in $\psi$.
Your formula has $∃y(Bx → Cy)$, that is equivalent to: $(Bx → ∃yCy)$.
And then apply $\forall x$ to get: