I've done some (maybe incorrect) algebra, which has led me to a strange equality: $$\frac{1}{x^p-x}$$ $$\frac{1}{(1+(x+p-1))^p+(p-1)x}$$ $$\frac{1}{1+p(x+p-1)+\cdots+p(x+p-1)^{p-1}+(x+p-1)^p+(p-1)x}$$ $p(x+p-1)+\cdots+p(x+p-1)$ are $0$ in $\mathbb{Z}_p$. $$\frac{1}{(x-1)^p +1 -x}$$ $$\frac{1}{(x-1)^p -(x-1)}$$
Which gave me an idea to use induction on $x$ (I don't know if this idea is legal), but I'm struggling to find the base.
I also see that $\frac{1}{x^p-x}=\frac{1}{x(x^{p-1}-1)}$, but that doesn't seem to lead anywhere.
The answer in the book is $-\sum_{a=0}^{p-1}\frac{1}{x-a}$.
Hints or full answers, I will be very grateful for any help.
Thank you.
You cannot use induction on $x$, since in $\mathbb Z_p[x]$, $x$ does not actually represent a number, let along an integer; it is merely a placeholder, or an algebraic object. You can only induct over things like integers or natural numbers, so this is out of the question.
Here is a more beneficial approach. Because $x^p-x$ equals $0$ for all $x\in\mathbb Z_p$, you may factor it as $x(x-1)...(x-p+1),$ which suggests (if you are familiar with partial fractions) that the decomposition is of the form $$\frac{a_0}{x}+\frac{a_1}{x-1}+...+\frac{a_{p-1}}{x-p+1}$$ But by symmetry (or, by substituting $x\to x+1$), you can see that all of these coefficients must be equal. So instead, you have a decomposition in the form $$a_0\bigg(\frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{x-1}+...+\frac{1}{x-p+1}\bigg)$$ In which case all you have to do is show that this constant $a_0$ is equal to $-1$. Does this help?