Question: For any prime numbers $p$ and $q$, one has $\text{gcd}(p+q, q) = \text{gcd}(p,q)$. Is this statement true?
Answer: True.
can someone explain why?
my reasoning: for any prime numbers, if an integer $q$ is added to it, the $\text{gcd}$ between $p+q$ and $q$ will still be $1$, since $q$ is still a prime number (prime = $1$(prime))
$p$ and $q$ don't even have to be prime: $\gcd(a,b)=\gcd(a+b,b)$. The Euclidean algorithm is based on this property.
The reason for this relies on this simple observation, easily checked: if $D(a,b)$ denotes the set of common divisors of $a$ and $b$, we have $D(a+b,b)=D(a,b)$, and more generally, for any integer $q$, $$D(a+qb,b)=D(a,b).$$ This is quite obvious since any number which divides $a$ and $b$ divides $a+qb$ ($\supset$) and conversely, a number which divides $b$ and $a+qb$ divides $(a+qb)-qb=a$ ($\subset$).