Prove that if $x = 2uv$ and $y = u^2 - v^2$, show that $(x, y, z)$ is a primitive Pythagorean triple if and only if $\gcd(u, v) = 1$.
The direction $\gcd(u, v) \neq 1$ implies $(x, y, z)$ is a non-primitive Pythagorean triple – this is straightforward. But I need the converse too, for which I'm completely stumped.
As has been pointed out in the answer by Zubin Mukerjee, the result as stated is not correct. We state and prove a correct version.
Theorem: Let $u$ and $v$ be positive integers, with $v\lt u$. Let $x=2uv$, $y=u^2-v^2$, and $z=u^2+v^2$. Then $(x,y,z)$ is a primitive Pythagorean triple if and only if $\gcd(u,v)=1$ and $u$ and $v$ are of opposite parity.
It is clear that $x$, $y$, and $z$ are positive integers. It is also easy to verify that $(2uv)^2+(u^2-v^2)^2=(u^2+v^2)^2$.
(i) We show that if $\gcd(u,v)\ne 1$ or $u$ and $v$ are of the same parity, than the triple $(x,y,z)$ is not primitive. Suppose that $\gcd(u,v)=d\gt 1$. Then $d^2$ divides all of $2uv$, $u^2-v^2$, and $u^2+v^2$, so the triple $(x,y,z)$ is not primitive.
Next we show that if $u$ and $v$ are of the same parity, then $(x,y,z)$ is not primitive. This is because in that case all of $2uv$, $u^2-v^2$, and $u^2+v^2$ are even.
(ii) Next we show that if $\gcd(u,v)=1$ and $u$ and $v$ are of opposite parity, then $(x,y,z)$ is primitive.
Suppose to the contrary that some $d\gt 1$ divides both $y$ and $z$. Then some prime $p$ divides both $y$ and $z$. So $p$ divides $u^2-v^2$ and $p$ divides $u^2+v^2$. Note that that since $u$ and $v$ are of opposite parity, it follows that $u^2+v^2$ is odd. So $p$ is odd.
Since $p$ divides $u^2-v^2$ and $u^2+v^2$, it follows that $p$ divides their sum and difference $2u^2$ and $2v^2$. since $p$ is odd, $p$ divides $u^2$ and $v^2$, and since $p$ is prime, $p$ divides $u$ and $v$. This contradicts the fact that $\gcd(u,v)=1$, and completes the proof.