If $\dfrac {x} {\infty }=0,$ where $x$ is a finite number, than wouldn't $0\cdot \infty $ be equal to any number? Making this not work?
2026-04-03 01:40:39.1775180439
Problems with x/∞
104 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail At
1
The problem here is:
It is not entirely mathematically correct to write $\dfrac{x}{\infty}=0$ when $x$ is real.
One thing you can do to mathematically justify your initial statement is to write it in the form of a limt:
$$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{x}{n}=0~\forall~x\in(-\infty,+\infty)$$
And then, you can write your claim (also in the form of a limit):
$$\lim_{n\to\infty}(0\times n)=0$$
Without using the form of limit, the values are undefined.