Given an Hilbert space $\mathcal{H}$ and an orthonormal set $\{e_i\}$, using Bessel's inequality I can show that the series:
$$ \sum_{i=0}^n \langle e_i, x\rangle e_i $$
and
$$ \sum_{i=0}^{\infty} \langle e_i, x\rangle e_i $$ (summed over a countable set of indices), converge in $\mathcal{H}$. However I find it challenging to extend this result to the sum over an uncountable set of $e_i$'s. Is it possible to prove that given an uncountable set $\{e_i\}_{i\in I}$ the sum
$$ \sum_{i\in I} \langle e_i, x\rangle e_i $$
converges in $\mathcal{H}$?
(Following what seems a more or less accepted policy [Best way of asking "check my proof" questions ], I'm posting my own approach as an answer, hoping for feedback on it, as I'm not sure it is correct.)
Yes, that seems correct. There's another way to define that sum that might be considered more elegant: If $X$ is a Banach space and $x_i\in X$ for every $i\in I$ define $$\sum_{i\in I}x_i=x$$to mean that for every $\epsilon>0$ there exists a finite set $E\subset I$ such that $$||x-\sum_{i\in F}x_i||<\epsilon$$for every finite set $F$ with $E\subset F\subset I$.
(The sums over finite subsets of $I$ form a net in an obvious way, and this just defines $\sum_{i\in I}x_i$ as the limit of that net.)
This leaves you with two obvious exercises: Show that this gives the same definition for $\sum_{i\in I}<x,e_i>e_i$, as what you did and also show directly that $\sum_{i\in I}<x,e_i>e_i=x$