This question have two parts.
The first one:
Let A be a k-algebra that is projective as k-module, where k is a commutative ring.
why is $A\otimes_kA$ projective as $A^{ev}=A\otimes_kA^{op}$-module?
I guess it's must be easy, but I can't find a justification.
A counterexample that show how $A$ could be NOT projective as $A^{ev}$-module despite being projective as left and right $A$-module.
I'm not sure about the first but here's a counterexample for the second: Take $A = k[x]$. Note this is commutative so the $op$ construction doesn't matter. $A \otimes A \simeq k[x, y]$ (where $y$ is just the $x$ from the right tensor factor) and the $k[x, y]$-module structure on $k[x]$ is to let both $x$ and $y$ act as $x$.
Now to see that $k[x]$ isn't a projective $k[x, y]$-module show that there is no injection $k[x] \hookrightarrow k[x, y]^n$ into a free module. Do this by asking where $1 \in k[x]$ is sent to and note that whatever $f \in k[x, y]^n$ this is, equivariance of the injection implies that $xf = yf$, or $(x - y)f = 0$, so $f = 0$.