In this answer to a question of mine, in the second paragraph, the author uses an expression analogous to $|a-b| \lt \frac{|a|}{2}$ , and then in the parenteses says that it implies that $|b| \gt \frac{|a|}{2}$.
It didn't seem obvious to me so I tried to prove it:
I assumed $|a-b| \lt \frac{|a|}{2}$, which is equivalent to $-\frac{|a|}{2} \lt a-b \lt \frac{|a|}{2}$. Adding b to both sides gets
$$ b-\frac{|a|}{2} \lt a \lt b+ \frac{|a|}{2}$$
Noting that $b \leq |b|$ and $-|b| \leq b$ we obtain
$$-|b| - \frac{|a|}{2} \lt a \lt |b| + \frac{|a|}{2}$$
$$\iff |a| \lt |b| + \frac{|a|}{2} \iff |b| \gt \frac{|a|}{2}. \square $$
This was not too easy for me so my questions are:
$\bullet$ Is this proof correct?
$\bullet$ Is there an easier way to prove this?
$\bullet$ How is a more experienced mathematician able to deal with these inequalities so easily, that (s)he doesn't need to write them down when using them in a proof?
Your proof is correct.
You can also use triangle inequality: $$|a| \le |a-b|+|b| < \frac{|a|}{2}+|b| \implies \frac{|a|}{2} < |b|.$$