Proof that if $p$ is a prime odd and $k$ is a integer such that $1≤k≤p-1$ , then the binomial coefficient
$$\displaystyle \binom{p-1}{k}\equiv (-1)^k \mod p$$
This exercise was on a test and I could not do!!
Proof that if $p$ is a prime odd and $k$ is a integer such that $1≤k≤p-1$ , then the binomial coefficient
$$\displaystyle \binom{p-1}{k}\equiv (-1)^k \mod p$$
This exercise was on a test and I could not do!!
On
You can prove it by induction on $k$. If $ k=1$ $\to$ $\displaystyle \binom{p-1}{k} = p-1$ that $p-1 \equiv -1 \mod p$. For $k= n +1$ use this $\displaystyle \binom{m}{n+1} =\displaystyle \binom{m}{n} +\displaystyle \binom{m}{n+1}$
Let $a=\binom{p-1}{k}$. Then $$a k!=(p-1)(p-2)(p-3)\cdots (p-k).$$ The $i$-th term on the right-hand side is congruent to $-i$ modulo $p$. Thus $$ak!\equiv (-1)^k k!\pmod{p}.$$ Now since $k!$ is not divisible by $p$ we can cancel.