Let $N=pq$ for $p,q$ prime.
If $\gcd(a,N)=1$ and $\gcd(b,N)=1$ is it true that $\gcd(ab,N)=1$
That is to say that $a$ and $N$ being coprime, and $b$ and $N$ being coprime, implies that $ab$ and $N$ are coprime.
Could someone give me a simple proof either way please?
Assume by contradiction that $\gcd(ab, N)\neq 1$. Then there exists some prime $p_0$ such that
$$p_0|ab,\ p_0|N$$
However, by Euclid's Lemma, we then have $p_0|a$ or $p_0|b$. That means either
$$p_0|\gcd(a,N)$$
or $$p_0|\gcd(b,N)$$
so one of $\gcd(a,N),\gcd(b,N)$ is not $1$. Thus, we have a contradiction, so our initial assumption is not valid, finishing the proof.