We define 2 function: $f : X \rightarrow X$ and $g : X\rightarrow X$ and we define $ V(f,g) = \{x \in X | f(x) \neq g(x) \} $. Next we define a relation $R$ on the set Fun($X,X$) of all functions from $X$ to $X$ by $(f,g) \in R$ if and only if V$(f,g)$ is a countable set. I have to proof that this is an equivalence relation. But I'm good with working with countable sets and kardinality. I got already stuck with the reflexivity. Suppose ($f,f$) $\in R$ then it doens't fullfi the prerequisite of V? Because $f(x)$ is always equal to $f(x)$. Thanks!
2026-03-27 00:00:06.1774569606
Proof equivalence relation with functions
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I guess that by countable you actually mean at most countable, which includes the cases wehre $V$ is finite or empty. Then the proof is quite easy: