Prove or disprove the following statement:
"If $(v_1,v_2,v_3,v_4)$ is a basis for the vector space ${\Bbb R}^4$ and $\textbf{W}$ is a subspace of ${\Bbb R}^4$ then some subset of $(v_1,v_2,v_3,v_4)$ forms a basis for $\textbf{W}$."
I have an intuition for this and I think it is false because it's saying that I can write $(v_1,v_2,v_3,v_4)$ as a linear combination of each other since the vectors form a basis. However, just because $\textbf{W}$ is in he subspace of ${\Bbb R}^4$ does not mean I can write is with linear combinations of $(v_1,v_2,v_3,v_4)$. There is no guarantee that I can completely span $\textbf{W}$ with $(v_1,v_2,v_3,v_4)$ right?
Is that even the right approach or is my thinking completely off? How would I actually do this mathematically?
Your idea is right. A concrete counter example would be good.
Let $v_i = e_i$, the $i$-th standard unit vector.
Let $W = \operatorname{span}\{ v_1 + v_2\}$, then none of the $\{e_i\}$ is a basis for $W$.