I have the following question :
Proof : $\mathbb{Z}_2 \oplus \mathbb{Z}_6 \not \cong \mathbb{Z}_{12}$
The problem is that I think that $\mathbb{Z}_2 \oplus \mathbb{Z}_6 \cong \mathbb{Z}_{12}$. I don't understand why is the following not an injective and surjective function:
$$f:\mathbb{Z}_{12} \rightarrow \mathbb{Z}_2 \oplus \mathbb{Z}_6$$ for all $a\in \mathbb{Z}_{12}$ so that $f(a)=(a \mod 2,a \mod 6)$.
I'm not really sure how to approach such questions, in general when asked proof/disproof $\mathbb{Z}_x \oplus \mathbb{Z}_y \cong \mathbb{Z}_{xy}$, Any tips? Any ideas?
Thank you!
Following your approach we have $ f (11\mod 12)=f (5\mod 12)=(1\mod 2, 5\mod 6) $, hence $ f$ is not injective.
Btw, the following general theorem is true: $\Bbb {Z}_{mn}$ is isomorphic to $\Bbb {Z}_m\oplus \Bbb {Z}_n $ iff $\gcd (m,n)=1$. You can find a proof of this result here.