In a passage from some school slides I have written:
consider an arbitrary $r \in Q$. Because $I$ is dense in $R$ there exists a sequence $\{x_n\} \subset I$ with $\{x_n\} \to r$.
This seems sensible but I am unsure where to start a proper proof.
In a passage from some school slides I have written:
consider an arbitrary $r \in Q$. Because $I$ is dense in $R$ there exists a sequence $\{x_n\} \subset I$ with $\{x_n\} \to r$.
This seems sensible but I am unsure where to start a proper proof.
On
Using the definition you provided in the comments:
Consider any $r \in \Bbb R$. By the density of the rationals, we may construct a sequence as follows:
The resulting sequence $\{x_n\}_{n=1}^\infty$ converges to $r$.
Isn't this by definition?
For any $r\in R$, it is a limit point of $I$. So by definition there exists a sequence in $I$ with limit $r$. And then $r\in Q$ implies $r\in R$.
Am I missing something?