I just learned about primitive roots today, and then I thought of this proof of Fermat's Little Theorem. Seeing that most proofs of this theorem aren't simple, I think I'm either completely wrong in my application of primitive roots (must have missed something fundamental, having just learned about them), or primitive roots are extremely powerful. Which one is it?
Proof: We want to prove that if $\gcd(a,p)=1$, with $p$ a prime, then $a^{p-1}\equiv 1\pmod p$. Since $p$ is prime there exists a primitive root $\operatorname{mod}\, p$, say $j$. It is well known that we can write every least residue $\operatorname{mod}\, p$ as a power of $j$, so e.g. we can write $a\equiv j^k$. Thus, it suffices to prove that $a^{p-1}\equiv j^{k(p-1)}\equiv 1\pmod p$. But this is obvious because $j^{k(p-1)}\equiv (j^{p-1})^k\equiv (1)^k\equiv 1\pmod p$ since $\operatorname{ord}_p(j)=p-1$ by definition.
QED
Thanks for your help guys!
A proof from scratch is simple.
There are obviously $p-1$ possible non-zero remainders if you divide a number relatively prime to $p$ by $p$, namely $1,2,\dots,p-1$. Now consider the remainders of $a,2a,3a,\dots,(p-1)a$. They must all be different, because if any two were the same then $p$ would divide their difference. That is impossible since $\gcd(a,p)=1$.
So they must be some arrangement of $1+k_1p,2+k_2p,\dots,p-1+k_{p-1}p$ for some integers $k_i$. Multiplying them all together we get $1\times2\times3\dots\times(p-1)=a^{p-1}\times1\times2\dots\times(p-1)\bmod p$. We can divide by $(p-1)!$ since it is not a multiple of $p$, to get $a^{p-1}=1\bmod p$.