I have a question about the proof of following lemma:
Let $G$ be a group such that $Ord(G)=pq$ for some primes $p<q$ and $p$ does not divide $q-1$. Then G is cyclic.
In the proof they are saying, that when $n$ is the number of all Sylow $q$-subgroups and $m$ is the number of all Sylow $p$-subgroups, then $n$ divides $pq$ and $q$ divides $n-1$. Also $m$ divides $pq$ and $p$ divides $m-1$. Since $p<q$ we conclude that $n=1$. Also since $q$ does not divde $q-1$, $m=1$.
Well, I understand that $n$ and $m$ divides $pq$, but why $q$ divides $n-1$ and $p$ divides $m-1$? I don't get it. The rest is also unclear for me. Hope anyone can help.
The 3rd Sylow theorem states that
So here $m$ divides $q$ and $n$ divides $p$, hence both divide $pq$. But this last point is unimportant. What matters is this:
$n$ is one of $1, 1+q, 1+2q,\dots$, and it must be a divisor of $p$. In the list only $1$ can divide $p$ since $p<qw1+q$. Similarly for $m$.
The consequence of this is that the Sylow-subgroups of $G$ are normal subgroups.