I'd like to request to verify this proof that for a arbitrary natural $n_0$ this holds:
$[C(n_0+1) $ and $\forall n>n_0 : C (n) \implies C (n+1)] \implies \forall n> n_0 : C (n) $
($C (n)$ means a condition)
At first it seemed easy but I haven't yet proved that there aren't any naturals between n and n+1 etc nor any other properties of naturals, which makes me unsure of the correctness of my proof. All I can use is peano axioms and addition. So here it is:
Assume $C (n_0+1) $ and $\forall n > n_0 : C (n) \implies C (n+1)$
Let D (n) be a condition: $D (n) \iff (n>n_0 \implies C (n))$
i) $D (0)$ is obviously true since 0 cannot be bigger than $n_0$ therefore the implication is true.
ii) Assuming $D (n) $we have to prove $D (n+1)$
$n>n_0 \implies C (n) $ (ind. hypothesis)
$\forall n>0 : C (n) \implies C (n+1)$
The previous 2 lines thus give: $n>n_0 \implies C (n+1) $
Since $n+1>n $ we get finally
$(n+1>n_0 \implies C (n+1)) $
Is this correct ? Is there a better aproach?
The easiest approach is to define a new variable $m=n-n_0$ and a new predicate $E(p)$ such that $E(p)\equiv C(p+n_0)$. Then you have $E(0)$ and $E(m)\implies E(m+1)$ and can use the induction axiom as usual.