I have this statement:
You have this fraction: $\frac{p}{q}$, where:
$q > p$ and $q,p \in \mathbb{R^+}$
Proof if $\frac{p}{q} < \frac{p+1}{q+2}$
Basically my development was:
$i)$ $\frac{p}{q}$ has an interval of $(0, 1)$
$i.a) \frac{p+1}{q+2} = \frac{p}{q+2} + \frac{1}{q+2}$
$ii)$ We can notice that $\frac{p}{q} > \frac{p}{q+2}$
$iii)$ According with the last. Let's suppose that $\frac{p}{q} < \frac{p+1}{q+2}$ is true. That is true, if and only if, $\frac{1}{q+2} < \frac{p}{q} - \frac{p}{q+2}$.
I think the step $ iii) $ of this way:
Let $k = \frac{p}{q} - \frac{p}{q+2}$, therefore $\frac{p}{q}$ is $k$ units bigger than $\frac{p}{q+2}$, to "counteract" this, i need that $\frac{1}{q+2}$ be greater than the difference $ k $(from step $i.a)$, and therefore be bigger than $\frac {p} {q}$
$iv)$ Assuming that $\frac{1}{q+2} < \frac{p}{q} - \frac{p}{q+2}$, i will multiply it by $(q+2)$, now i have:
$1 + p< \frac{p(q+2)}{q}$, that is:
$1 + p< \frac{p}{q} *^(q+2)$
I'll write the interval of the left and right side of this inequality.
$[1, \infty^+) < (0, 1) * [2, \infty^+)$ ( assuming that $p,q$ they are infinitely small positives)
Until here I have arrived. In fact, I do not know if it is correct (if it is NOT, I would like to know why), otherwise I would like to know how to continue.
Thanks in advance.
We have that
$$\frac{p}{q} < \frac{p+1}{q+2}\iff p(q+2)<q(p+1) \iff pq+2p<pq+q \iff 2p<q$$