So the idea behind this proof is to use limits of definite integrals.
Question: If
0$\lt$b $\leqslant$1, then $$\int_1^{\infty}\frac{1}{x^b}dx$$ diverges.
I was wondering how might this proof be done? What does it mean by using th elimits of the definite integral.
HINT
Note that by definition
$$\int_1^\infty {1\over x}dx = \lim_{a\to\infty} \int_1^a {1\over x}dx$$
and