I know how to prove this property with the matrix function $\pmb\Phi (t)=\exp((\textbf A+\textbf B)t)\exp(-\textbf Bt)\exp(-\textbf At)$ and its derivative $\pmb\Phi'(t)$, by proving that $\pmb\Phi'(t)=\textbf 0$ for all $t$.
It is also stated (Exercise 7.3.9, p. 539 of "Matrix Analysis and Applied Linear Algebra") that it could be proven with the function $\textbf F(t)=\exp((\textbf A+\textbf B)t)-\exp(\textbf At)\exp(\textbf Bt)$, proving that its derivative $\textbf F'(t)=\textbf 0$ so $\textbf F(t)$ is constant and since for $t=0$ it is zero so it is zero for all $t$.
I am trying to prove that $\textbf F'(t)=(\textbf A+\textbf B)\exp((\textbf A+\textbf B)t)-\textbf A\exp(\textbf At)\exp(\textbf Bt)-\textbf B\exp(\textbf At)\exp(\textbf Bt)$ is zero for all $t$ but without success. Is my derivative function correct and if it is so how to prove it is identically zero?
Let's take as a starting point what you have calculated $\textbf F'(t)=(\textbf A+\textbf B)\exp((\textbf A+\textbf B)t)-\textbf A\exp(\textbf At)\exp(\textbf Bt)-\textbf B\exp(\textbf At)\exp(\textbf Bt)$
Then by substituting $\textbf F(t)$ to the previous expression we get \begin{align*} \textbf F'(t)&=(\textbf A+\textbf B)\exp((\textbf A+\textbf B)t)-\textbf A\exp(\textbf At)\exp(\textbf Bt)-\textbf B\exp(\textbf At)\exp(\textbf Bt)\\ &=(\textbf A+\textbf B)(\textbf F(t)+\exp(\textbf At)\exp(\textbf Bt))-\textbf A\exp(\textbf At)\exp(\textbf Bt)-\textbf B\exp(\textbf At)\exp(\textbf Bt)\\ &=(\textbf A+\textbf B)\textbf F(t) \end{align*} Now take any vector $v$ and multiply the previous equality $$(\textbf F(t)v)'= (\textbf A+\textbf B)(\textbf F(t)v)$$ Which implies that $$\textbf F(t)v =e^{(\textbf A+\textbf B)t}\textbf F(0)v=0,\, \forall t \in \mathbb{R}$$ Therefore $$F(t)\equiv0$$