I am a little confused about this claim. This is part of a proof in Rudin's analysis book. He uses this claim as a fact without further proofs.
Claim If $n>2k>0$ and $n,k\in \mathbb{N}$, then $n(n-1)\dots (n-k+1)>(\frac{n}{2})^k$.
First of all, I failed to convince myself that this statement is true. By playing with algebra a little bit, this statement still does not seem obvious to me. To prove it, the induction theorem comes to me naturally. However, with the constriction that $n>2k$, I have to start from $n=2k+1$ as a base case. As a result, the base case even cannot be verified. Any hint will be appreciated.
$0<k<n/2$
$n-k+1>n-n/2+1=n/2+1>n/2$
$n(n-1)\dots (n-k+1)>(n-k+1)^k>(\frac{n}{2})^k$