In the textbook of Partial differential equation of Evans.

Why from $\int_U(v-\overline v)\phi dx=0$ for all $\phi \in C_c^\infty (U)$, we can get $v-\overline v=0$ a.e.?
How to prove it?
Thanks!
In the textbook of Partial differential equation of Evans.

Why from $\int_U(v-\overline v)\phi dx=0$ for all $\phi \in C_c^\infty (U)$, we can get $v-\overline v=0$ a.e.?
How to prove it?
Thanks!
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First see $\S$ C.5 of Evans's book.
Now to prove the statement, we simply let $\phi(y)=\eta_\epsilon(x-y)$ and then apply Theorem 7 (ii). The main idea here is Lebesgue's Differentiation Theorem.