Can we prove well ordering principle for the set of natural numbers (positive integers ) with directly using the principle of induction i.e. $( S \subseteq \mathbb N ,1 \in S \space \&\ n \in S \implies n+1 \in S) \implies S=\mathbb N $ and not using principle of strong induction ? The proof I know first prove principle of induction implies principle of strong induction and then uses strong induction to prove well ordering principle , but I want a direct proof using only induction . Thanks in advance
Proof of well ordering principle for the set of positive integers with directly using the principle of induction and not strong induction
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On
Let $S \subseteq N$ be non-empty, and define:
$R = \{x \in N : x \le y, \forall y \in S\}.$
Then $0 \in R$ since $0 \le y$ $\forall y \in N$, in particular $\forall y \in S$.
Since S is non-empty, there is a $y \in S$; this implies $y + 1 \notin R$: otherwise
we would have $y + 1 \le y$, [Perhaps you can disprove this with PEANO'S AXIOMS]
Thus $R$ contains $0$ but $R \neq N$; the induction axiom then implies that there
must exist an $x \in R$ such that $x + 1 = s(x) \notin R$ [$S : N \rightarrow N$ is a successor function].
We claim that $x$ is a smallest
element of $S$.
First, $x \in R$ implies $x \le y$, $\forall y \in S$> So, we only need to show that $x \in S$.
Assume $x \notin S$; then $x \le y$ ,$\forall y \in S$ implies $x < y$ (because we can’t have
equality), hence $x + 1 = s(x) \le y$, $\forall y \in S$, which by definition of R shows
that $x + 1 \in R$ in contradiction to the construction of $x$.
On
I claim that for all $n$, for all $A \subseteq \mathbb{N}$, if $n \in A$ then $A$ has a least element.
The base case is $n = 0$. Clearly, if $0 \in A$, then $0$ is the least element of $A$.
Now suppose the claim holds for $k$, and suppose we have $k + 1 \in A$. We consider two cases. The first is that $k + 1$ is the smallest element of $A$. In that case, we’re done.
The other case is that there is some $j < k + 1$ such that $j \in A$. Note that $j \leq k$. Let $A’ = A \cup \{k\}$. Then $k \in A’$, so by the inductive hypothesis, $A’$ has a least element $w$. Since $w \in A \cup \{k\}$, we see that either $w \in A$ or $w = k$. If $w = k$, then we have $k \leq j \leq k$ and therefore $w = k = j \in A$, so either way, we know that $w \in A$. Since $w \in A \subseteq A’$ and $w$ is the smallest element of $A’$, it is also the smallest element of $A$.
You might consider this to be a bit cheating, but here is a proof using only induction and one additional inference.
Lemma. If $A\subseteq\Bbb N$ has a maximal element, then $A$ has a minimal element.
Proof. First note that $A$ has a maximal element, so it is non-empty. Now we prove by induction on $n$: If $\max A=n$ then $A$ has a minimal element.
Therefore if $A$ has a maximal element, it has a minimal element. $\square$
Theorem. The principle of induction implies that every non-empty set of natural numbers has a minimal element.
Proof. If $A$ is a non-empty set, pick some $n\in A$, then $A'=\{a\in A\mid a\leq n\}$ has a maximal element $n$. We proved by induction that $A'$ has a minimum element $k$. If $m\in A$ then either $m\leq n$ in which case $m\in A'$ so $k\leq m$ or $m>n$ and in which case $k<m$. In either case $k=\min A$. $\square$