I have a problem with this exercise:
Proove that if $R$ is a reflexive and transitive relation then $R^n=R$ for each $n \ge 1$ (where $R^n \equiv \underbrace {R \times R \times R \times \cdots \times R} _{n \ \text{times}}$).
This exercise comes from my logic excercise book. The problem is that I've proven $R^n=R$ is false for $n=2$ and non-empty $R$.
Here is how I've done it:
Let's take $n=2$. $R$ is a relation so it's a set. $R^2$ is, by definition, a set of ordered pairs where both of their elements belong to $R$. But $R$ is a set of elements that belong to $R$ - I mean it's not the set of pairs of elements from $R$. So $R^2\neq R$.
Please tell me something about my proof and this exercise. How would you solve the problem?
The problem makes more sense if we assume that the $\times$ that appear in it is not the Cartesian product, but an unusual notation for composition of relations, which is more commonly notated with $\circ$:
$$ R\circ S = \{ \langle a,c\rangle \mid \exists b: \langle a,b\rangle\in S \land \langle b,c\rangle\in R \} $$
In that case we can indeed have $R\circ R=R$, for example if $R$ relates everything to everything -- and in particular this is true if $R$ is reflexive and transitive.