Suppose we would like to find a formula for some interesting real-valued function on the positive integers $f(n):\mathbb{Z}^+\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$, and we have the inductive equation
$$\forall n\in\mathbb{Z}^+,\quad f(n+1)=f(n)+p(n)$$
for some polynomial $p(x):\mathbb{R}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$. It should be intuitively obvious that $f(n)$ is also a polynomial, or at least that there exists a polynomial which is equal to $f(n)$ on the positive integers. Let $q(x):\mathbb{R}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ be such a polynomial:
$$ \forall n\in\mathbb{Z}^+,\quad f(n)=q(n) $$
Furthermore, the degree of $q(x)$ is one more than the degree of $p(x)$:
$$ \deg q(x) = \deg p(x) + 1$$
This allows the use of polynomial interpolation with the first $d+1$ points of $f(n)$ to calculate the coefficients of $q(x)$, and thus find a formula for $f(n)$. I would like a proof for the existence of the polynomial $q(x)$.
Proposition: If $f(n):\mathbb{Z}^+\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ is a function such that there exists a polynomial $p(x):\mathbb{R}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ of degree $d$ such that $$\forall n\in\mathbb{Z}^+,\quad f(n+1)=f(n)+p(n)$$ then there exists a polynomial $q(x):\mathbb{R}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ of degree $d+1$ such that $f(n)=q(n)$ for all $n\in\mathbb{Z}^+$.
For example, let $f(n):\mathbb{Z}^+\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ be the sum-of-squares function defined $$f(n) = \sum_{k=1}^{n} k^2$$
For all positive integers $n\in\mathbb{Z}^+$, the function $f(n)$ satisfies the equation
$$f(n+1)=f(n)+(n+1)^2$$
Let $p(x)$ be the polynomial of degree $2$ defined $p(x)=(x+1)^2$ for all $x\in\mathbb{R}$. From the proposition, there exists a polynomial $q(x)$ of degree $3$ such that $f(n)=q(n)$ for all $n\in\mathbb{Z}^+$. Thus, we can use polynomial interpolation with the points $f(1)=1$, $f(2)=5$, $f(3)=14$, and $f(4)=30$ to calculate the coefficients of $q(x)$. This yields: $$q(x) = \frac{1}{3}x^3 + \frac{1}{2}x^2 + \frac{1}{6}x$$ For $n\in\mathbb{Z}^+$, this matches the standard formula: $$f(n)=\frac{n(n+1)(2n+1)}{6}$$
This is a simple example, but this technique has helped me obtain formulas for complex recurrences simply by knowing what degree it will have.
Since $f(n+1)-f(n)=p(n)$, we have:
$$f(n)=f(n-1)+p(n-1)=f(n-2)+p(n-2)+p(n-1)=...=f(1)+\sum_{i=1}^{n-1} p(i)$$
Thus, since $f(1)$ is a constant, we need to show $\sum_{i=1}^{n-1} p(n-1)$ is a polynomial of degree $k+1$, where $p$ is of degree $k$. Let $p(x)=\sum_{j=0}^k p_jx^j$, where $p_j$ are the coefficients of $p$. Thus, we have:
$$f(n)=f(1)+\sum_{i=1}^{n-1}\sum_{j=0}^kp_ji^j$$
Switch the order of summation:
$$f(n)=f(1)+\sum_{j=0}^k\sum_{i=1}^{n-1}p_ji^j$$
Now, by Faulhaber's Formula, $\sum_{i=1}^{n-1}p_ji^j$ is a polynomial of degree $j+1$ in terms of $n$. Thus, we are adding a polynomial of degree $0+1=1$ plus a polynomial of degree $1+1=2$ plus ... a polynomial of degree $k+1$. When we add polynomials of different degrees, the degree of the resulting polynomial is the maximum of the degree of the addends (i.e. a polynomial of degree $5$ plus a polynomial of degree $3$ is a polynomial of degree $5$). Thus, the resulting polynomial has degree $k+1$, which is exactly what we set out to prove.