Proof. Consider $x\in A \overset{\text{def}}{\Longrightarrow} x \notin A^C$. Therefore $A\nsubseteq A^C$.
Consider also $x\in A^C \overset{\text{def}}{\Longrightarrow} x \notin A$. Therefore $A^C\nsubseteq A$.
Since $A^C\nsubseteq A$ and $A\nsubseteq A^C$ we prove that $A^C \cap A = \varnothing$.
I have a simple question: does my proof contain errors?
EDIT:
I think I have got it now.
Proof. Let $A \subseteq \Omega$.
Assume there is an element such that $x \in A\cap A^C$. This is equivalent to $x\in A$ and $x\in A^C. $
Since $x \in A \overset{\text{def}}{\Longrightarrow}x\notin A^C$, there exists no $x$ such that $x\in A$ simultaneously as $x\in A^C$.
Therefore, $\nexists x: x\in A \wedge x\in A^C$ and $A\cap A^C=\varnothing$.
You cannot conclude $X\cap Y = \varnothing $ from $X\nsubseteq Y$ and $Y\nsubseteq X$ (take, for instance, $X=\{a,b\}$ and $Y=\{b,c\}$). That being said, your first two lines are true, and any one of your two implications can be used to deduce that no $x$ can be in both $A$ and its complement.