If $(G,*)$ is a group and $(a * b)^2 = a^2 * b^2$ then $(G, *)$ is abelian for all $a,b \in G$.
I know that I have to show $G$ is commutative, ie $a * b = b * a$
I have done this by first using $a^{-1}$ on the left, then $b^{-1}$ on the right, and I end up with and expression $ab = b * a$. Am I mixing up the multiplication and $*$ somehow?
Thanks
There is only one operation defined for the group, namely $*$, so if you want to be pedantic/exact, $a*b$ is a valid statement, while $ab$ is not defined.
However, in practice we shorten the notation, so $a*b$ can be written as $ab$.
So your final expression is equivalently $ab=ba$ or $a*b=b*a$. They are the same with slightly different notation.