Im working through a proof which shows that for $\frac{1}{p}+\frac{1}{q}$ the map $\Phi:L^q(\Omega;\mathbb{K})\to (L^p(\Omega;\mathbb{K}))^*$, $g\to \Phi(g)[f]:=\int_{\Omega}\overline{g}f\space d\mu$ is an antilinear isometric isomorphism. But I don't understand two important steps when it comes to showing that $\Phi$ is surjective. Since there is a lot of notation and definitions involved I will post a photo of the relevant parts of the proof.
My first question is: Since pointwise we can have $|f_o(x)-Pf_0(x)|=0$, why is $g_T$ as defined below well defined?

My second question is: Why is $F(t)$ differentiable? And assuming it is and assuming we can swap differentiation and integration, how do I get the derivative that is shown below?

For the first part, the map $g$ is well defined because, for all $x$ : $$|g(x)| = \lambda|f_0(x)-Pf_0(x)|^{p-1} $$ And since $p>1$, the above quantity goes to zero when $f_0(x)-Pf_0(x) = 0$ ($p-1>0$ so there is no division by zero occuring).
Edit : Let $y\equiv f_0(x)-Pf_0(x)$, and consider the map $\tilde g:y\mapsto \lambda |y|^{p-2}y\in\mathbb C$. Clearly, $\tilde g$ is continuous and well defined everywhere, except at $y=0$ where we might run into some problems (since $p-2$ might be negative, in which case $|y|^{p-2}$ diverges as $y\to 0$). So let's see what happens when $y$ goes to zero. The modulus of $\tilde g(y)$ is given by : $$|\tilde g(y)| = |\lambda |y|^{p-2}y| = |\lambda|\cdot|y|^{p-2}\cdot|y| =|\lambda|\cdot|y|^{p-1} $$ Now note that by assumption, $p>1$, hence $p-1>0$ from which it follows that $$\lim_{y\to0}|\tilde g(y)| = \lim_{y\to0}\ |\lambda|\cdot|y|^{p-1} = 0 $$ Hence $\tilde g$ is well-defined at $y=0$ and, at that point, is equal to $\tilde g(0) = 0$. You can now deduce from this argument that $g(x) = \tilde g\left(f_0(x)-Pf_0(x)\right)$ is also well defined everywhere, and takes value $0$ when $f_0(x)-Pf_0(x) = 0$.
Now let's deal with the second part. For notational convenience, I will denote $f_0-Pf_0\equiv f'$ in the following.
A sufficient condition for the differentiability of the map $$F:t\mapsto\int_\Omega |f' +th|^pd\mu $$ Is given by Leibniz integral rule. In the linked article, we are given the three conditions that ensure the existence of $F'$.