Does my proof of the false statement '$\exists{y}>0$ s.t $\forall{x}>0,y<x$' make logical sense using the contradiction method?
Suppose that there exists $y>0$ such that for all $x>0$ we have that $y<x$. Then take $y=x+1$ for any $x>0$ so that $y>0$. Thus $y>x$ which is a contradiction. Therefore the statement is false.
The easiest way of proving a statement to be false is often by counter example. Assuming we're working in the reals (or the rationals), consider $x = \frac{y}{2}$.
As for your proof, after supposing such a $y$ exists, it doesn't make much sense to then choose $y = x + 1$ for some arbitrary $x > 0$. You should be choosing your $x$ to show that such a $y$ cannot exist, not the other way around.