Suppose G is a group and that for all $x,y,z\in G$, we have that $xy=zx \implies y=z.$ Prove $G$ is Abelian.
“Proof”:
Since $xy=zx \implies y=z$, $\forall x,y,z\in G$, we have that for $y=z=t, xt=tx$. Hence any two arbitrary elements of $G$ commute. Thus, we see by definition, that $G$ is Abelian.
QED
Is this proof correct and rigorous?
This is just Ihf's proof simplified:
By the given condition:
$$x(yx)=(xy)x \Rightarrow yx=xy$$