Problem: Let $p$ be a prime. Consider $\sum\limits_{i = 1}^{p-1} \frac1i = \frac K{(p-1)!}$. Rearranging, we have $K = \sum\limits_{i = 1}^{p-1} \frac{(p-1)!}i$. Prove that $p \mid K$.
Hint: consider the factorization $x^{p-1} - 1 \equiv (x-1) ...(x - (p-1)) \pmod{p}$.
Attempt: I am finding applying the hint difficult. Sure, the RHS of the congruence relation contains $(p-1)!$, but I can't see how the factorization would help me prove the expression for $K$. Any help is appreciated.
This is not a complete proof but rather some thoughts.
Edit: I erroneously states that this works for p=2 when it does not.
Suppose $p$ is an odd prime. By the hint, we have that $$p^{p-1} - 1 \equiv (p-1)! \pmod p.$$ On the other hand $$p^{p-1} -1 \equiv -1 \pmod p.$$ Putting these two facts together gives $$(p-1)! \equiv -1 \pmod p.$$ Therefore, $$K \equiv \sum_i^{p-1}\frac{-1}{i} \pmod p.$$ Can you finish from here?