My textbook explains the proof, which I don't understand:
"Consider two bases $v_1...v_p$ and $w_1...w_q$ of V. Since the vectors $v$ are linearly independent and the vectors $w$ span V..."
How exactly does $w$ span V?
The book then says the same for vectors $v$, that $v$ spans V and hence $p=q$, but I don't really understand how you can assume that given two sets of vectors that are basis, one set must span V.
A subset $B$ of a vector space $V$ is a basis for $V$ if it spans $V$ and is linearly independent.
If $\{v_i\}_1^p$ and $\{w_k\}_1^q$ are bases of $V$, then:
Both $\{v_i\}$ and $\{w_k\}$ span $V$,
Both $\{v_i\}$ and $\{w_k\}$ are linearly independent sets.