I feel like the solution should be obvious, but I can't figure out how to formally prove it.
I have a relation of $(a,b)$ pairs such that $3a - b^2$ is an even integer. I want to know if for an $(a,a)$ pair (ie. two of the same number), the result is even.
I know that obviously even numbers divide by two, and that a number divides by $2$ if it is some multiple of $2$, i.e. $x = 2k$. Plugging in, I have $3a - a^2$, which I can re-write as $a(3-a)$. Just by trying a few test integers ($1$, $2$, etc.) it seems to hold, but I'd rather do it without an inductive proof since I'm sure it is possible.
Any pointers in the right direction? Thanks!
Hint: observe two cases: