But if I let $q = 2^2.3.5....p + 1$ instead, and use theorem $11$, then doesn't that prove that there are infinitely many primes of the form $4n + 1$?
2026-04-18 10:01:50.1776506510
Proof that there are infinitely many primes of the form $4n+1$
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No, it does not. $q$ could still be a product of all primes that are of the form $4n + 3$.