So I'm really confused about what is being done in this proof.
Q Prove that if $t\ge 0\, (t \in \Bbb R)$, then there exists an $n \in \Bbb N$ such that $n-1 \le t < n$.
Proof - Let the set $S = \{a \in \Bbb N : a > t\}$. Then it follows that $S$ is non-empty by Archimedean Property, and there is a unique $n \in S$, $a \ge n$ by the well ordering principle.
Since $n \in S$, we have $n > t$. (why?)
Now, consider two possibilities, $n =1$ or $n > 1$.
If $n=1$, then $n-1 = 0$, and also $0 < t$ (how do we know this again?).
If $n > 1$, then $n \in \Bbb N$, but by construction $n-1 \notin S$. (How?)
So $n - 1 \le t$. (HOW???)
Hence $n - 1 \le t < n$.
I've been staring at this since quite a while and trying to figure it out by back tracking to the definitions of Archimedian Property and Well Ordering Principle. I know what they say but I don't understand how the question has been proved. A clear explanation of what is going on will be extremely helpful!
Question 1: why is $n>t$? N is an element in $S$ ($n\in S$) and from the definition of $S$ we have $S=a\in \mathbb N:a>t$. Any element in $S$ is greater than $t$, including $n$, so $n>t$
Question 2: it is slightly wrong. You have $0\le t$ from the definition, not $0\lt t$
Question 3: if $n\gt 1$ then $n-1 \in \mathbb N$. But we defined $n$ as the minimum element in $S$, so $n-1\notin S$
Question 4: $n$ is the minimum element of $S$, so $t \le n$. If $t$ would be less than $n-1$, by definition $n-1\in S$, so $n$ is not the minimum element