Suppose $n|m$, then $n\cdot d=m,~d\in\Bbb Z$.
If $a\equiv b\mod m$, then $a\equiv b\mod{n\cdot d}$.
Additionally, $d\equiv d\mod{n\cdot d}$.So we know $ad\equiv bd\mod{n\cdot d}$.
$\therefore a\equiv b\mod n$
Would this be a valid proof?
Suppose $n|m$, then $n\cdot d=m,~d\in\Bbb Z$.
If $a\equiv b\mod m$, then $a\equiv b\mod{n\cdot d}$.
Additionally, $d\equiv d\mod{n\cdot d}$.So we know $ad\equiv bd\mod{n\cdot d}$.
$\therefore a\equiv b\mod n$
Would this be a valid proof?
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