Prove whether the following sequence converges or diverges: $a_n$=$\frac{(-1)^{n}n}{n+1}$
Claim: the sequence diverges
Proof:
Consider the subsequence $\frac{(-1)^{2n}2n}{2n+1}$ of $(a_n)$
Then, $\lim\frac{(-1)^{2n}2n}{2n+1}=1$ as $n \to \infty$
Let $\epsilon>0$ be given. Choose $N\geq \frac{1}{\epsilon}$. Then, for all $n\geq N$, $|\frac{(-1)^{2n}2n}{2n+1}-1|<\epsilon$
Consider another subsequence $\frac{(-1)^{2n-1}(2n-1)}{2n}$ of $(a_n)$
Then $\lim\frac{(-1)^{2n-1}(2n-1)}{2n}=-1$ as $n \to \infty$
Let $\epsilon>0$ be given. Choose $N\geq \frac{1}{\epsilon}$. Then, for all $n\geq N$, $|\frac{(-1)^{2n-1}(2n-1)}{2n}-(-1)|<\epsilon$
Since there are two subsequences of $a_n$ converging to two different limits, then, this implies that the sequence $(a_n)$ diverges.
Can anyone please verify if the following proof is correct? Also, are there any other ways to prove divergence?
Your proof is not complete. If your argument at the end is:-
Then, $(2)$ is redundant as it does not add anything to $(1)$ in the proof.
An alternative method to do this which does not involve the subsequence notion is as follows:-
Assume that $\lim \frac{(-1)^n(n)}{n+1}=a$ as $n \rightarrow \infty$ for some $ a \in \mathbb{R}$.
Using definition of a limit, we get:
For every $\epsilon > 0$, there exists $N \in \mathbb{N}$ such that if $n > N$, then $\left|\frac{(-1)^n(n)}{n+1}-a \right| < \epsilon$.
In particular, let $\epsilon=\frac{1}{2}$.
Then, there exists $N \in \mathbb{N}$ such that if $n > N$, then $\left|\frac{(-1)^n(n)}{n+1}-a \right| < \frac{1}{2}$.
We have two cases to consider:-
$(a)$ Assume $n$ is odd:- If $n > N$, then $\left|\frac{-n}{n+1}-a \right| < \frac{1}{2}$.
$(b)$ Assume $n$ is even:- If $n > N$, then $\left|\frac{n}{n+1}-a \right| < \frac{1}{2}$.
Now, using triangle inequality, we get:
$\frac{2n}{n+1}=\left| \left(\frac{-n}{n+1}-a \right) - \left(\frac{n}{n+1}-a \right) \right| \leq \left| \left(\frac{-n}{n+1}-a \right) \right| + \left| \left(\frac{n}{n+1}-a \right) \right| < 1 $.
Note that $\frac{2n}{n+1}=2-\frac{2}{n+1}$ and so $\frac{1}{n+1} > \frac{1}{2}$.
This is equivalent to $n < 1$, a contradiction as $n \in \mathbb{N}$.
It follows that $(a_n)$ does not converge, hence $(a_n)$ diverges by definition.