Proof. If $S\subset T$, then for all $s\in S$ there exists $t \in T$ such that $f(s)=f(t)$.
In other words, for all $s\in S$ there exists $b \in f(T)$ such that $f(s)=b$.
Therefore, all $f(s)$ is contained in $f(T)$ and thus $f(S)\subset f(T)$. (QED?)
Is it correct?
No, it is not..
You should take an arbitrary $y\in f(S)$, then there is $x\in S$ such that $f(x)=y$. But since $x\in T$ we have also $y\in f(T)$, so $f(S)\subseteq f(T)$