Claim: $\lim{C^{1/n}}=1$ for $C>0$
Working: $|C^{1/n}-1| < \epsilon$
$ \implies C^{1/n} < \epsilon +1$
$\implies {(1/n)}\ln{C} < \ln{(\epsilon +1)}$
$ \implies n> {\ln{C}/\ln{(\epsilon +1)}}$
Proof:
Let $ \epsilon >0$ be given.
Choose $N>{\ln{C}/\ln{(\epsilon +1)}}$
Then for any $n>N$, this implies that $|C^{1/n} -1|<\epsilon$
Hence, $\lim{C^{1/n}} =1$ for all $C>0$
Can anyone please verify this proof?
It is not correct. For one, you did away with the absolute value.
Try to split it into cases. $C=1$ is obvious, but consider $C>1$. Afterwards, a simple trick takes care of the case $C<1$.
If you want to avoiding logarithms, consider the following. Let $C>1$, so that $C^{1/n}>1$ for all $n\geq 1$. For each $n$, write $C^{1/n}= 1+ d_n$ and notice $d_n > 0$. Then, for each $n$, we have by Bernoulli's ineuqality that
$$C = {\left(C^{1/n}\right)}^n =(1+d_n)^n \geq 1+nd_n.$$
This implies that $0<d_n \leq \frac{C-1}{n}$ and hence $\lim_{n\to\infty}d_n = 0$ by the squeeze theoerem. It follows that
$$\lim_{n\to\infty} C^{1/n} = \lim_{n\to\infty} 1+ d_n = 1,$$
as desired. Finally, for $0<C<1$, we have
$$C^{1/n} = \frac{1}{\left(\frac1C\right)^{1/n}}.$$
Do you think you can conclude?