I would like to know if this is correct:
Let be $f:V\times V\times\text{ }...\times V\rightarrow W $ a symetric k-linear form. If $f(v,..,v)=f\cdot v^k=0,\forall v\in V$, then $f=0$.
I proved this for k=2, but I don't know if it's worth it in general.