I've managed to prove this for a few specific cases of $k$ (($k=3$, $n \geq 10$) and ($k=4$, $n \geq 17$)) with induction, but I just don't see how to generalize it for any $k$. Even double induction is proving difficult because I can't even seem to prove the base case.
Any help is appreciated.
Consider this function: $$ f(u)=u\log 2-k\log u,\quad f'(u)=\log 2-\frac{k}{u}. $$ If $u\geq \frac{k}{\log 2}$, then $f(u)$ is increasing. Since $k^2+1\geq 2k>\frac{k}{\log 2}$, for all $n\geq k^2+1$ we have: $$ f(n)\geq f(k^2+1). $$ Therefore if we prove that $f(k^2+1)>0$ the result is proved. Therefore we should prove only that $$ 2^{k^2+1}>(k^2+1)^k\implies 2^{k+\frac 1k}>k^2+1 \tag{1}. $$ But for $k\geq 5$, we have: $$ 2^k=(1+1)^k\geq \binom{k}0+\binom{k}1+\binom{k}2+\binom{k}{k-2}+\binom{k}{k-1}+\binom{k}{k}=k^2+k+2. $$ Since $2^{1/k}>1$, we have for $k\geq 5$: $$ 2^{k+\frac 1k}\geq k^2+k+2>k^2+1. $$ The proof follows by checking the inequality $(1)$ for $k=1,2,3,4$.