Prove $a_1+\cdots+a_n=\dfrac{(a_1+a_n)n}{2}$ inductively.
Where $a_i=a_{i+1}-r$.
I tried to start proving it inductively, but any try lead to a bad conclusion, so I ended up proving it by making $a_n$ depend on $a_i$.
But I didn't know how to prove it inductively, so there is the problem.
EDIT:
I'm looking for a valid induction steps to reach the conclusion.
If $n=1$, the result is trivial.
Suppose $$\sum_{i=1}^k a_i = \frac{(a_1+a_k)k}{2}$$
\begin{align}\sum_{i=1}^{k+1} a_i &= \frac{(a_1+a_k)k}{2}+a_{k+1}\\&=\frac{a_1k+a_{k+1}(k+1)-rk+a_{k+1}}{2}\\ &= \frac{a_1k+a_{k+1}(k+1)+a_1}{2}\\ &=\frac{(a_1+a_{k+1})(k+1)}{2}\end{align}