Prove that if element $a \in \mathbb{Z}[i]$ and $N(a) = \vert a \vert^2$ is a prime then $a$ is irreducible in $\mathbb{Z}[i]$.
My direction:
Suppose that $a$ is not irreducible in $\mathbb{Z}[i]$.
Give $b$ is a real divisor of $a$ in $\mathbb{Z}[i]$. Then, $\vert b \vert^2 \mid \vert a \vert^2 \Rightarrow \vert b \vert^2 \in \{1,\vert a \vert^2\}$.
Suppose that $b= x+iy (x,y\in \mathbb{Z})$.
- Case 1: If $\vert b \vert^2 = 1$ then $x^2 +y^2 =1$.
Infer $(x,y) = (\pm 1,0)$ or $(x,y) = (0,\pm i)$
Infer $b=\pm1$ or $b=\pm i$
Both of them aren't real divisors of $a$ in $\mathbb{Z}[i]$. (conflict with the way choose $b$)
- Case 2: $\vert b \vert^2 =\vert a \vert^2$. I stuck here now
Thanks for helping me.
It is not at all clear by what you mean by a 'real' divisor. Also, the notations $|a|^2$ and $|b|^2$ are rather deceptive, because $|a|,|b|\notin\Bbb{Z}[i]$ in general. Instead of your current approach, consider the following:
Given $a\in\Bbb{Z}[i]$ such that $N(a)$ is prime in $\Bbb{Z}$, let $b,c\in\Bbb{Z}[i]$ be such that $a=bc$. Then $$N(b)N(c)=N(bc)=N(a),$$ and hence either $N(b)=1$ or $N(c)=1$. Without loss of generality $N(b)=1$. You have already shown that then $b=\pm1$ or $b=\pm i$, so $b$ is a unit in $\Bbb{Z}[i]$. This proves that $a\in\Bbb{Z}[i]$ is prime.
To be fully rigorous, you might also want to show that $a$ is not a unit in $\Bbb{Z}[i]$.