How to prove the following without using Hölder's inequality :
$$ \|f\|_{p} = \sup_{\|g\|_q =1} \int |fg| d\mu ; \frac{1}{p} + \frac{1}{q} =1$$
How to prove the following without using Hölder's inequality :
$$ \|f\|_{p} = \sup_{\|g\|_q =1} \int |fg| d\mu ; \frac{1}{p} + \frac{1}{q} =1$$
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I'll try to clarify what Wikipedia says:
Indeed, once you have
(*), Minkowski's inequality easily follows: $$\|f+h\|_p = \sup_{\|g\|_q = 1} \int |(f+h)g| d\mu \le \sup_{\|g\|_q = 1} \int |fg| d\mu+\sup_{\|g\|_q = 1} \int |hg| d\mu =\|f\|_p+\|h\|_p $$As Daniel Fischer said,
(*)is a statement that contains Hölder's inequality. If you are proving(*), you are proving Hölder's inequality along the way.If you want a proof of Minkowski's inequality without Hölder's inequality, see here.