I am asked to prove that the $+$ and $\times$ operations are well-defined on quotient rings. Having little experience with similar questions I looked up the proofs online and found that most of them feature a step I don't entirely understand.
Normally, they would begin with something like this:
Let $r+I=r'+I$ and $s+I=s'+I$, then $r-r',s-s' \in I$.
I have run through several examples in my head and realise that this is correct, but I don't really understand where the general conclusion comes from, especially since $r-r'$ or $s-s'$ isn't necessarily $0$. I'm probably missing something extremely obvious, but being new to quotient rings I just don't see why $r-r' \in I$, and a similar argument applies to the $\times$ proof.
Let's do an example. Consider the ring $\mathbb{Z}[x]$ (polynomials in $x$ with integer coefficients) and the ideal $I=(x)$ (polynomials with $0$ constant term).
Let's take $2+(x)$ and $3 + (x)$ in the quotient ring $\mathbb{Z}[x]/(x)$. Now, their product is defined as $$(2+(x))(3+(x)) = 6 + (x).$$ But notice, $2+(x) = 2+x + (x)$, so we could've also multiplied as $$(2+x+(x))(3+(x)) = 6 + 3x + (x).$$ Now, notice that $6+3x+(x)$ and $6+(x)$ are equal, so BOTH multiplications give the SAME answer. This is what well-defined means.
To check that the multiplication is well-defined in general, you have to show that picking different representatives of an ideal $r+I$ gives the same multiplication/addition.