To Prove: $B = A -(A-B)$
suppose $ A,B $ are sets. Let $x \in A - (A-B)$.
$$x \in A - (A \cap B^C)$$
$$x \in A \cap (A \cap B^C)^C$$
$$x \in A \cap (A^C \cup B) $$
$$ x \in (A \cap A^C) \cup (A \cap B)$$
$$ x \in \emptyset \cup (A \cap B)$$
$$ x \in (A \cap B)$$
In particular, $ x \in B$
Then, is it true, because $x$ is an element of $B$(in particular), or does it require $A = B$, since $x \in A \cap B $
Also, do I have to prove it the other way since there is an equal sign? Thanks!
The statement is false. Take $A=\{1\}$, $B=\{2\}$. Then $A-B=\{1\}$, and $A-(A-B)=\emptyset\neq B$.