It's a homework problem. Prove $\binom{n}{k} = 0$ for $n = 0, 1, ... , k-1$
I think induction needs to be used, I can do $n = 0$ (and $n = 1$ since our teacher likes us to do the first two), but $n = m$ confuses me... Do you have to limit it so $m < k-1$ or something?
Sorry that's a brief explanation...
Edit: $\binom{n}{k} = \frac{n(n-1)...(n-k+1)}{1*2*...*k}$, also $\binom{n}{0} = 1$
I think what I am trying to ask is how do I approach this problem? You can prove the base case very easily, but I am not sure what the inductive hypothesis would be exactly, because $n$ is not $0,1,...,\infty$, but rather $0,1,...,k-1$ A hint on that might point me in the right direction?