I have to prove by using definition that the supremum of the set $S:=\lbrace{\frac{1}{a} - \frac{3}{b}:a,b \in \mathbb{N}}\rbrace $ is $\sup(S)=1$.
I'm stuck in proving that: if $u<\sup(S)=1 $ then $\exists s\in S$ such that $u<s\leq \sup(S)$. I've tried using the archimedean property, using the fact that $u<1$, meaning that, $0<1-u$. Then by Arch. Property (or one of it's corollaries) $\exists a \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $0<\frac{1}{a}<1-u$. Also I can use again the A.P. with $0<1/a$. Then exists $b \in\mathbb{N}$ such that $0<\frac{1}{b}<\frac{1}{a}<1-u$. Now i've got two inequalities. First $0<\frac{1}{a}<1-u$. Second $0<\frac{1}{b}<1-u$. Working with the second, i've got a third inequality: multiplying by -3: $3u-3<-\frac{3}{b}<0$. Then adding first one and third one ive got: $3u-3<\frac{1}{a}-\frac{3}{b}<1-u$. But I'm stuck here. Any hint or help? Thanks in advance.
EDIT:
My instructor understands "prove by definition" the following:
i) First prove that $\sup(S)=1$ is an upper bound (i.e. $s\leq \sup(S)=1 \forall s \in S$). (I've already proven that)
ii) Then prove such number (i) IS the least upper bound (i.e. if $u<\sup(S)=1$ then $\exists s \in S$ such that $u<s\leq \sup(S)=1$).
Hint: You can see that the $\sup(S) \leq 1$, because each element is bounded above by 1. Now fix $a=1$ and let $b$ get arbitrarily large.