First, let $\binom{n}{k} = \frac{n!}{k!(n-k!)}$ for any integers $0 \le k \le n$
Show that $\binom{n-1}{k-1}+\binom{n-1}{k} = \binom{n}{k}$ for any $1 \le k \le n$
(I don't need help with this part, I have worked it out and it is true. This must be a hint for how to use induction, but I can't figure out exactly how to apply it, hmm...)
- Now, using point (2) and induction, prove that for any integer $n \ge 1$ and any real number $x$, $$ (1+x)^n = \sum_{k=0}^n x^k \binom{n}{k} $$
I'm guessing that the solution will require strong induction, i.e. I'll need to assume that for some integer a, the equivalence holds for all b in the range $1 \le b \le a$ and using this assumption show that the equivalence holds for $a+1$ as well. Perhaps multiply both sides by $(1+x)$? But that really messes up the binomial terms... Any help would be greatly appreciated! Thank you :)
Assume it is true for $n$. Here is a start. $$\sum_{k=0}^{n+1} {n+1 \choose k} x^k = \sum_{k=0}^{n+1} \left( {n\choose k-1} + {n\choose k}\right) x^k.{{}}$$ Now split this sum in two. One piece will yield $(1+x)^n$ and the other will yield $x(1 +x)^n$.